Mathematics Prelims

March 18, 2009

The Fundamental Group, Part II – The Basepoint

Filed under: Topology — cjohnson @ 2:07 pm

We constructed the fundamental group by looking at the homotopy classes of loops with a fixed basepoint.  The question that naturally arises is how does the fundamental group change if we move the basepoint.  To begin let’s suppose we’re in a path connected space X and we have two basepoints we’re concerned about, say x_0 and x_1.  Since X is path connected, there exists some path f from x_0 to x_1.  We can use this to convert x_1 loops into x_0 loops.

What we’ll do is take a loop, say g, based at x_1 and use our path to get from x_0 to x_1, follow the loop, then take the reverse path back to x_0.  This is illustrated in the image below (adapted from an image in Hatcher’s book).

Connected Loops

This new path f * g * \overline{f} is a loop based at x_0.  Now, if two x_1-loops, say g_1 and g_2 are homotopic, then so are the associated x_0-loops: g_1 \simeq g_2 \implies f * g_1 * \overline{f} \simeq f * g_2 * \overline{f}.

If we now construct a map \beta_f : \pi_1(X, x_1) \to \pi_1(X, x_0) by setting \beta_f [g] = [f * g * \overline{f}] we see that the map will be well-defined since our construction of the x_0-loops respects homotopy.  But what happens when we concatenate two x_1-loops?

Suppose g and h are loops based at x_1.  We want to see what this map does to the homotopy class of g * h.

\displaystyle \beta_f([g] \cdot [h]) = \beta_f[g * h]

\displaystyle = [f * g * h * \overline{f} ]

\displaystyle = [f * g * \overline{f} * f * h * \overline{f} ]

\displaystyle = [f * g * \overline{f}] \cdot [f * h * \overline{f}]

\displaystyle = \beta_f [g] \cdot \beta_f [h]

So our \beta_f map is in fact a homomorphism.  Notice that f * g * \overline{f} \simeq f * h * \overline{f} implies g \simeq h, which means that our map is injective.

To show the map is surjective, let h be an x_0-loop, then \overline{f} * h * f is an x_1-loop.  Applying \beta_f we have \beta_f[\overline{f} * h * f] = [f * \overline{f} * h * f * \overline{f}] = [h], and so our map is surjective.  Together with injectivity above we have shown that in a path connected space the fundamental group of \pi_1(X, x_0) and \pi_1(X, x_1) are isomorphic.  We then simply write \pi_1(X) since the choice of basepoint is basically irrelevant.

If our space is not path connected, but x_0 and x_1 are in the same path component, the above gives us that \pi_1(X, x_0) \cong \pi_1(X, x_1).

An Aside on Path Connectedness

Filed under: Topology — cjohnson @ 9:31 am

Long ago we talked about topological spaces being connected, which meant we couldn’t partition the space into two disjoint non-empty open sets.  There is a stronger notion that we’ll need when working with the fundamental group called path connectedness.  We say that a space X is path connected if for every pair of points x, y \in X there exists a path in the space, f : [0, 1] \to X, such that f(0) = x and f(1) = y; we can connect every pair of points with a path.

If a space is not path connected, it can be decomposed into a collection of disjoint subsets with are path connected.  These subsets are called the path components of the space.  More specifically, path connectedness is an equivalence relation on the space and the path components are the equivalence classes.  Clearly every point is path connected to itself (reflexivity); if x and y are connected by path f, then the reverse path \overline{f} connects y and x (symmetry); and the concatenation operation from last time gives us transitivity.

We said that path connectedness was a stronger condition than connectedness.  This means that path connectedness implies regular ol’ connectedness.  To see this, suppose that X is path connected.  Let u, v \in X be connected by path f.  Let U be an open set containing u, and V an open set containing v.  Now consider the preimages f^{-1}(U) and f^{-1}(V).  Since f is a path it is continuous, so these are two open subsets of [0, 1].  We must have f^{-1}(U) \cup f^{-1}(V) = [0, 1] since f(0) = u and f(1) = v.  We know that [0, 1] is connected, however.  This implies that U \cup V must be connected (otherwise their preimages would be disjoint open sets covering [0, 1]).  Since U and V were arbitrary, we can generalize to get that X is connected.

Notice that this also means that a continuous path must stay inside of one path component.

March 17, 2009

The Fundamental Group, Part I – Connecting Paths

Filed under: Topology — cjohnson @ 4:27 pm

Imagine that you have two paths, f : [0, 1] \to X and g : [0, 1] \to X.  If it should happen that the terminal point of f is the initial point of g (that is, if f(1) = g(0)), then we can basically concatenate f and g into a new path h.  To do this formally we need to define h : [0, 1] \to X, which means we have to reparameterize f and g a little bit.  We’ll define h so that it behaves as f on [0, 1/2] and as g on [1/2, 1] (notice this will be well-defined since we’re assuming the terminal point of f is the initial point of g).

\displaystyle h(t) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} f(2t) &: t \in [0, 1/2] \\ g(2t - 1) &: t \in [1/2, 1] \end{array} \right.

We will let the asterisk denote this concatenation operation: f * g = h.

In the case that f and g are loops with the same basepoint, we’re just gluing the two loops together.  In the image below the basepoint is represented by the red dot.  We’re taking these two loops and gluing them together so that we first wind around the first loop (the one on the left) and then around the second loop.

Concatenated Loops

Note that the red dot is the same basepoint for both loops, even though in our picture it doesn’t stay aligned (just for graphical convenience).

If f, g and h are loops (with the same basepoint) and f \simeq g, we can show that f * h \simeq g * h.  Letting \{ f_t : [0, 1] \to X \} be the homotopy taking f to g, we construct the homotopy \{ h_t : [0, 1] \to X \} by defining h_t = (f_t * h).  This always behaves as h on the “second half” of the loop, and deforms to g on the first half.  Of course, this also can be used to show that h * f \simeq h * g.

We can now use * to help us form an operation on the homotopy classes of loops.  We will simply define {}[f] \cdot [g] as {}[f * g].  This operation is clearly associative, since our concatenation is associative. The identity element of this operation is the homotopy class of the constant function.  Keeping in mind that these are loops, the constant function is the function that maps everything to the basepoint.  Let c denote this map.  Then we have that {}[f] \cdot [c] = [f * c] = [f], where the last equality follows from the fact that with f * c we traverse f twice as fast as normal, then just sit at the basepoint.  This is homotopic to f, and so f and f * c live in the same homotopy class.

Finally, our operation is invertible.  To define the inverse operation we will take a loop f and will let \overline{f} denote the reverse loop: \overline{f}(t) = f(1 - t).  This reverse loop will have the same shape as the initial loop, but traverse the loop in the opposite direction.  Now notice that f * \overline{f} can be compressed into the constant map by constructing a homotopy that traverses most of f, then goes ahead and starts coming back through \overline{f}.  This homotopy slowly reels f * \overline{f} back to the basepoint, which eventually turns it into the constant map.  Since f * \overline{f} \simeq c (c being the constant basepoint map), we have that {}[f*\overline{f}] = [c], and similarly {}[\overline{f}*f] = [c].

So, our operation is associtiative, has an identity, and is invertible, so we have a group of the homotopy classes of loops for a fixed basepoint.  This is known as the fundamental group and is denoted \pi_1(X, x_0), where X is the space and x_0 is the basepoint.  In the next post we’ll look at what happens when the basepoint changes.

March 15, 2009

Homotopy Classes

Filed under: Topology — cjohnson @ 1:11 pm

If we have two continuous maps, f : X \to Y and g : X \to Y, we would like to view f and g as essentially being the same map if they are homotopic to one another; we want to consider f and g as being equivalent with respect to homotopy.  To do this we need to show that homotopy is an equivalence relation on the set of continuous X \to Y maps.  This is a pretty simple thing to verify.

Suppose f, g, h : X \to Y are all homotopic to one another with \{ \alpha_t : X \to Y \} being the homotopy from f to g, and \{ \beta_t : X \to Y \} the homotopy from g to h.  To show that f \simeq f we can simply take the identity homotopy: \{ i_t : X \to Y \} where i_t \equiv f.  For reflexivity we’ll construct a new homotopy \{ \overline{\alpha_t} : X \to Y \} where \overline{\alpha_t}(s) = \alpha_{1 - t}(s).  This simply reverses the direction of the homotopy: instead of going from f to g, we start at g and go to f.  For transitivity we construct the homotopy \{ \gamma_t : X \to Y \} with \gamma_t = \beta_t \circ \alpha_t.  Then \{ \gamma_t \} takes us to h by first taking us g.

This shows that homotopy is an equivalence relation.  We will refer to equivalence classes here as being homotopy classes.

Just as general homotopy is an equivalence relation, so too is path homotopy.  Since path homotopy has the additional requirement of being anchored down at the path’s endpoints, though, path homotopy is an equivalence relation on all paths with two fixed endpoints.

If a function is in the same homotopy class as a constant function, we say that the function is null-homotopic.  This means that we can squeeze the function’s graph down to a single point with a homotopy.  Notice that the only way a path can be null-homotopic (when we say homotopic and are talking about paths, we mean path homotopic) is if its initial and terminal points are the same.  Such a path is called a loop and the homotopy classes of loops is what we will actually place a group structure on to construct the fundamental group.

Path Homotopy

Filed under: Topology — cjohnson @ 12:10 pm

Over the next few posts we’re going to be discussing homotopy groups in topology.  Homotopy groups will be our window into the world of algebra, giving us the opportunity to use machinery from algebra to do interesting things with topological spaces (and vice versa).  Before trying to put an algebraic structure on a topological space though, we need to discuss paths.

A path is a mathematical way of connecting two points in space.  In the case of the Euclidean plane, for instance, there is a line segment between any two points.  There are also all sorts of curves that start at one point and end at another.  These are paths as well, provided they can be represented as continuous functions.  That is, a path in a topological space X is a continuous function \rho : [0, 1] \to X.  We call the points \rho(0) and \rho(1) the initial and terminal points of the path.  The choice of the interval [0, 1] is semi-arbitrary, since we could just as easily have used {}[-\pi, e] or a finite portion of a ray in some other space.  However, [0, 1] is convenient and it’s not very difficult to reparameterize a path that uses some other interval to “fit” in [0, 1].  For example, if we had a path p : [-\pi : e] \to X, we could just take \theta(x) = (x + \pi)/(\pi + e), then if we define \rho = p \theta, we’d have the same path represented as \rho : [0, 1] \to X.

Now, between two points, say x_0, x_1 \in X, there may be several paths.  We would like to know if two paths connecting these points are essentially the same thing or not.  That is, if one path can be deformed into the other.  We saw last time that homotopy gave us a way to deform functions, but we have to take a little bit of care when it comes to paths.  You see, we would like to use homotopy to bend one path into another, but with the restriction that all of the intermediate functions are paths as well.  Our homotopy should be anchored down at the path’s endpoints.

If \rho_1 and \rho_2 are paths with initial point x_0 and terminal point x_1, we say that \rho_1 and \rho_2 are path homotopic if there exists a homotopy \{ h_t : [0, 1] \to X \} (recall we may think of a homotopy as a family of functions) such that for every t, we have that h_t is also a path from x_0 to x_1.  Recalling the video from last time, we had a homotopy between two curves in the plane.  This was not an example of a path homotopy because, for one thing, the endpoints of the paths changed as we bent one curve into the other.

Modifying that example slightly, however, we can construct a path homotopy.  In this case our space is \mathbb{R}^2 and our two paths are given by (-\cos(\pi t), \sin(\pi t)) and (2t-1, \cos(3 \pi t - \pi/2)).  Using the straight-line homotopy we then have the following.

Notice how here the points (-1, 0) and (1, 0) are the endpoints for all of the paths in the homotopy.

Of course, not all paths are homotopic to one another.  In the special case of \mathbb{R}^n all paths are homotopic, just as before, but if we simply remove the origin from \mathbb{R}^2, it’s easy to construct two non homotopic paths.

Non-Homotopic Paths

Here the blue path and the red path are simply the portions of the unit circle connecting (-1, 0) and (1, 0).  However these paths are not path homotopic as we would have to either break a path or move through the origin to deform one path into the other, just as before.  Even though these two curves are not path homotopic, they are in fact homotopic in \mathbb{R} \setminus 0 as the following video demonstrates.

The purple path bends the blue path into the red path while avoiding the origin.  Again, this is not a path homotopy since the endpoints aren’t anchored down.

March 12, 2009

Homotopy of Functions

Filed under: Topology — cjohnson @ 6:51 pm

Given two continuous real-valued functions, it’s easy to imagine how one of these functions may be deformed into the other.  For instance, if we take the sine curve modified so that it passes through the points (-1, 0) and (0, 1), we can bend and stretch it into a curve that passes through (-1, 0) and (0, 1) but as a semicircle.  Consider the video below.

Here we’re taking the curve, grabbing the endpoints and swapping them, bending the curve as we do so.  In topology this idea of deforming one function into another is formalized by homotopy.  A homotopy between two functions, f and g, is a continuous map that “through time” bends one curve into the other.  If a homotopy between f and g exists we say that f and g are homotopic and write f \simeq g.

(It should be noted that the above deformation is with parametric curves.  That is, these are functions of the form {}[0, 1] \to \mathbb{R}^2, and not \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} functions.  This is why having the crossing and failing the vertical line test is okay.)

Formally, a homotopy between two continuous functions f, g : X \to Y is a continuous function F : X \times I \to Y that satisfies a few properties.  Before discussing those properties, however, let’s make some ideas and notation clear.  First we’ll just let I denote the closed unit interval [0, 1], mainly just to keep typing down.  Now, when we say a continuous function from X \times I to Y, we of course mean continuous in the topological sense (preimages of open sets are open), but what’s an open set in X \times I?  It’d be nice to say that it was just the Cartestian product of an open set in X and an open set in I, but unfortunately that’s not enough.

If you think about Euclidean plane, \mathbb{R}^2, it seems entirely reasonable to say that the ball B_1(0) = \{ (x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^2 : \|(x, y)\| < 1\} (that is, the collection of all points of distance less than one from the origin) is open, but we can’t represent this ball as the product of two open sets in the real line.  If we take an open set A and an open set B from \mathbb{R}, their product A \times B is just going to be a collection of open rectangles in the plane.  Taking A = B = (1, 2) \cup (3, 4), for instance, we have the following.

Boxes

If A and B are open sets, then A \times B is going to look something like this, since every open set can be represented as a countable collection of open intervals.  Of course, we could construct a more complicated set by changing the sizes and number of intervals making up A or B, but we’re still limited to sets that look something like the above.

The open ball, however, can not be represented like this.  If we took lots and lots, infinitely many in fact, open rectangles of various sizes and could put them together however we like, we could construct the open ball.  That is, the open rectangles of \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} = \mathbb{R}^2 should form a basis for the topology.

The product topology of X \times Y is precisely the topology whose basis is the collection of the open “rectangles” in X \times Y.  So, even though an open set in X \times Y may not be the product of an open set in X and an open set in Y, it can be described as a union of those open rectangles (where we allow infinite unions).  It is in this sense that we mean F : X \times I \to Y is continuous: the preimage of an open set in Y is an open set in X \times I with the product topology.

We may think of the function F : X \times I \to Y as actually being a family of functions \{ f_t : X \to Y \}, for t \in [0, 1] where f_t actually means the function f_t(s) = F(s, t).  We will generally think of homotopies as deforming one function into another through time, where “time” is given by the interval [0, 1].  That is, the starting time is t = 0 and the stopping time is t = 1.  At each point t \in [0, 1]  associate the function f_t.  So, the homotopy is giving us a family of functions, one for each moment in time.  The condition of continuity basically means that if \epsilon > 0 is small, then the change from f_t to f_{t + \epsilon} is small.

Now, earlier we said that this function F : X \times I \to Y has to satisfy a few properties to be a homotopy taking f to g.  The first condition was continuity, and the second is simply that F(s, 0) \equiv f_0 \equiv f and F(s, 1) \equiv f_1 \equiv g.  This means that when we start, we have the function f and when we finish we have the function g.  So, a homotopy gives us a way to take a function f and bend it around however we like provided that we don’t break the curve and that we eventually stop bending the function when we get to the function g.

In the special case of the \mathbb{R}^n valued functions we can actually show that all continuous maps are homotopic to one another.  What we will do is add little pieces of f to little pieces of g, where the portion of f that we’re using shrinks, and the portion of g grows, as t goes from 0 to 1.  We then define the homotopy  F(s, t) = (1 - t) \cdot f(s) + t \cdot g(s).  It’s easy to see that this satisfies the conditions for a homotopy as when t = 0 we have F(s, 0) = f(s), and when t = 1 we have F(s, 1) = g(s).  Since this is composition of continuous functions (addition, substraction, multiplication, and the maps f and g), this is also a continuous function.  This is known as the straight-line homotopy since we imagine taking the curve f and the curve g and drawing lines between associated points (i.e., drawing a line between f(s) and g(s) for each s), then the homotopy just moves f to g along those lines.  This result applies to convex subspaces of \mathbb{R}^n as well.

At this point you may wonder about how to find two functions that are not homotopic.  We’ve just seen that all continuous \mathbb{R}^n functions are homotopic to one another, so we need to consider some other space.  Suppose we just take \mathbb{R}^2 and remove the origin; \mathbb{R}^2 \setminus 0.  If f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}^2 \setminus 0 is the unit circle, and g : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}^2 \setminus 0 is a line segment connecting the points (2, -1) and (2, 1), then we can’t deform the circle into this line segment in our space.

circle_line

Intuitively it’s easy to see that in order to deform the circle like this we’d either have to tear the circle, which would make the deformation discontinuous, or the circle would have to pass through the origin as it’s deformed.  However, the origin isn’t in our space, so there can be no intermediate function in our homotopy that passes through the origin.  This means the circle and the line segment can’t be homotopic.

February 22, 2009

The Hausdorff Property

Filed under: Topology — cjohnson @ 7:53 pm

One of the important tools in topology are properties that are invariant between spaces.  These are properties of topological spaces that remain unchanged under certain “operations” that we may perform on the spaces.  We’ve already seen one such property in connectedness, and now we’re going to discuss another one: the Hausdorff property.  We say that a space has the Hausdorff property if for every pair of points in the set, there are disjoint open sets that contain the points.  For example, in the case of the real line with the standard topology, we can pick two distinct points, x and y, and find two open intervals, U and V, such that x \in U and y \in V, but U \cap V = \emptyset.  If x = 1 and y = 2, for instance, we may take U = (-0.9, 1.1) and V = (1.5, 2.3).

Proposition: If (X, d) is a metric space, then the topology induced by the metric has the Hausdorff property.

Proof:  Let a, b \in X and denote the distance between a and b by \delta = d(a, b).  Clearly B_{\delta / 2}(a) and B_{\delta / 2}(b) are disjoint open sets containing a and b, respectively.

At first glance, it would seem that a topological space which does not posess the Hausdorff property is a strange or esoteric abstract space, but there is an easy way to extend the real line, with its standard topology, into a non-Hausdorff space.  We simply add a second zero to real line, which we’ll call Z.  The open sets containing Z are the same as the open sets containing zero, except that zero is replaced by Z.  For example, (-1, 1) \setminus \{0\} \cup \{Z\} is such an open interval.  Now, note that this space (called the real line with a double point) is not Hausdorff:  Let U and V be any two open sets with 0 \in U and Z \in V.  By the way we’ve defined a topology on this space, V must contain an open interval containing Z.  This open interval is precisely the same as some open interval containing zero (with zero replaced by Z).  Any open interval containing zero must have a non-empty intersection with this open set, however.  Since U must contain some open interval containing zero, U and V must have a non-empty intersection.  This means the space can not be Hausdorff.

January 25, 2009

Continuous Functions from the Reals to the Rationals

Filed under: Topology — cjohnson @ 6:45 pm

Using the ideas of connectedness previously discussed, we can show that a continuous function from \mathbb{R} to \mathbb{Q} must be constant.  We will do this by showing that if we have such a continuous function, we’d have a surjection between a connected space and a disconnected space, which we showed in the last post can’t happen.

Suppose f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{Q} is a non-constant map; we’re not making any assumptions about continuity or surjectivity, just that the image of the map has at least two distinct points.  Let q_1, q_2 be two distinct points in the image of \mathbb{R}; q_1, q_2 \in f(\mathbb{R}) : q_1 \neq q_2.  Now note that f is a surjection from the reals to its image, f(\mathbb{R}).  Assume, without loss of generality, q_1 < q_2.  Since these points are distinct, there must be an irrational number in \mathbb{R}, call it r, between them.  Let Q_1 = \{ q \in f(\mathbb{R}) : q < r \} and Q_2 = \{ q \in f(\mathbb{R}) : q > r \}.  Notice that these are open in the subspace topology of f(\mathbb{R}) as \mathbb{Q} \cap (-\infty, r) is open in \mathbb{Q} and Q_1 = f(\mathbb{R}) \cap (\mathbb{Q} \cap (-\infty, r)), and likewise for Q_2.  These two sets are clearly disjoint and cover f(\mathbb{R}) and are non-empty as q_1 \in Q_1, \, q_2 \in Q_2.  This means that f(\mathbb{R}) is a disconnected space.  We know that f is a surjection to f(\mathbb{R}) a disconnected space.  This is impossible if f is continuous, so we have if f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{Q} is non-constant it is not continuous, which by contrapositive means that if f is continuous, it must be constant.

(This is a modified version of the proof in Crossley, with some gaps filled in.)

Connected Spaces

Filed under: Topology — cjohnson @ 5:06 pm

Crossley motivates the idea of connectivity of a topological space by posing the question of whether or not there can be a continuous surjection from \mathbb{R} to the set S^0 = \{-1, 1\} with the discrete topology.  If such a surjection f existed, then f^{-1}(\{-1\}) = U and f^{-1}(\{1\}) = V would be open subsets of \mathbb{R}.  Also note that as S is partitioned by these sets, \mathbb{R} must be partitioned by U and V; i.e., U \cup V = \mathbb{R} with U \cap V = \emptyset.  We further require that neither U nor V may be empty as f is a surjection.  If we can show that no such U and V can exist, then we will have shown there is no continuous surjection from \mathbb{R} to S^0.

Let u \in U and v \in V and assume, wlog, that u < v and consider the interval {}[u, v]: one endpoint is in U and the other is in V.  Split the interval into two halves of equal size, {}[u, u + (v-u)/2] and {}[v - (v-u)/2, v].  One of these intervals will lie entirely in one set, while the other will have an endpoint in each set.  This follows from the fact that U and V are open sets that partition \mathbb{R}.  Call the interval with an endpoint in each of the sets S_1.  Notice if we split S_1 into two closed intervals of equal length, we will again have an interval with an endpoint in each of U and V.  Call this interval S_2.  In general, we will let S_n denote the interval obtained if we split S_{n-1} into two halves and pick the half with an endpoint in U and the other in V.  Notice (S_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}} is a decreasing sequence of closed intervals.  Furthermore, because of the way we constructed the S_n, their measure is decreasing to zero.  These sets must have a non-empty intersection, but because the measure is shrinking to zero, this intersection must consist of a single point.  This point, then, must be in both U and V.  This contradicts the fact that U and V are non-empty disjoint sets, however.  This means we can not find open sets U and V that are disjoint, both non-empty, and whose union is \mathbb{R}. So we conclude that there can be no continuous surjection from \mathbb{R} to S^0.

In general a topological space that does have two disjoint, non-empty open sets that partition the space is called disconnected, while a space where no such sets exist is called connected.  We say that a subset of a topological space is disconnected if it’s a disconnected topological space when endowed with the subspace topology.  The S mentioned above is a disconnected space.  Another example is \mathbb{Q} with the subspace topology from \mathbb{R}.  Note that this is not simply the discrete topology on \mathbb{Q}, as it was with \mathbb{Z}.  (The set {0} will not be open since any open subset of \mathbb{R} will contain an open interval, so if we take some open set of reals and intersect it with the rationals, we’ll get all of the rationals in the intervals making up the open set.)  Letting U = \mathbb{Q} \cap (-\infty, \pi) and V = \mathbb{Q} \cap (\pi, \infty) gives us two non-empty open sets whose intersection is empty, but whose union is all of \mathbb{Q}.  Similarly, \mathbb{Z} is disconnected; let U = \mathbb{Z} \cap (-\infty, 1/2) and V = \mathbb{Z} \cap (1/2, \infty).

In fact, if we have any connected space T, there can be no continuous surjection to S^0.  The proof of this follows the same outline for \mathbb{R} above.  We can also show that if X is any disconnected space there is a continuous surjection from X to S^0: we just split X into two disjoint, non-empty open sets that partition X (by disconnectedness), map everything in one set to 1 and everything in the other set to -1.  This tells us that if T is connected and X is disconnected, there is no continuous surjection from T to X.  If there were, we’d just compose that surjection with the surjection from X to S^0 then we’d have a map from T to S^0.

Now we’ll show that any continuous function from \mathbb{R} to \mathbb{Z} must be constant.  Suppose that f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{Z} is continuous and let z be a point in the image of f.  Let U = f^{-1}(\{z\}) and V = f^{-1}(\{z\}^\complement) = f^{-1}(\{z\})^\complement = U^\complement.  Clearly U and V are disjoint sets whose union is \mathbb{R}  Since f is continuous, both U and V must be open.  However, \mathbb{R} is a connected space, so one of U and V must be empty.  We know that U is not empty, since we specifically chose it to be the preimage of a point in the image of f.  This means that V = \emptyset, so \mathbb{R} = U and everything maps to z under f, and so f must be constant.

January 24, 2009

The Discrete, Trivial, and Subspace Topologies

Filed under: Topology — cjohnson @ 5:51 pm

Given a set X, there are always at least two topologies that can be placed on X: the discrete topology and the trivial topology.  The discrete topology is the topology where every set is open; the collection of open sets in the topology is simply the collection of all sets, 2^{X}.  If f : X \to Y is a map between topological spaces where X has the discrete topology, then f will be continuous, regardless of how it maps the elements of X to Y.  The trivial topology is the bare minimum for a topology: the empty set and the entire set X.  For any map f : Z \to Y, then, f will be continuous as f^{-1}(\emptyset) = \emptyset and f^{-1}(Y) = Z.  Regardless of the topology on Z, those two sets will be open, so f is continuous.

Suppose now that (X,\tau) is a topological space where \tau is any topology.  If Y \subseteq X we can place a topology on Y by using the topology of X.  Let \tau_2 be a collection of subsets of Y where Z \in \tau_2 (Z is an open subset of Y) if Z = Y \cap \mathcal{O} for some \mathcal{O} \in \tau.  We call \tau_2 the subspace topology of Y.  For instance if we take \mathbb{R} with the standard topology, we can place a topology on {}[0, 1] using this subspace topology.  In such a case, sets like {}[0, 1/2) are considered open in this topology since {}[0, 1/2) = [0, 1] \cap (-1/2, 1/2), even though this is not considered an open subset of \mathbb{R}.

If A and B are topological spaces and f : A \to B is continuous, we’d like to know when f is continuous when restricted to a subspace C of A.  We can show that if define D as the image of C under f, and assign D the subspace topology in B, then f|_C : C \to D is continuous.  Let U be an open subset of D.  Then U = D \cap \mathcal{O} for some open subset \mathcal{O} of B.  We know f|_C^{-1}(U) = f^{-1}(D \cap \mathcal{O}) = f^{-1}(D) \cap f^{-1}(\mathcal{O}).  By definition f^{-1}(D) = C and f^{-1}(\mathcal{O}) is an open subset of A by the continuity of f.  That is, f|_C^{-1}(U) = C \cap f^{-1}(\mathcal{O}) is an open subset of C with the subspace topology, so the restriction of f to C is continuous.

In the case of \mathbb{Z}, the subspace topology inherited from \mathbb{R} is the same as the discrete topology on \mathbb{Z}.  Let z \in \mathbb{Z}.  Then \{z\} is an open set with the subspace topology as \{z\} = \mathbb{Z} \cap (z - 1/2, z + 1/2).  This gives that every singleton set is an open set and since any set will be a union of singletons, any set will be open.

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